#116

[@tanishabiswas6268]

This cleared my doubts.. Very well explained! Thank you sir!

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[@AshishCrazyclasses20]

A very helpful explanation

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[@AshishCrazyclasses20]

Sir I already do it😁

[@balajimundhe763]

sir what if we consider cut in angle ?

[@loki_army_2210]

thank you sir🙏🙏🙏😊😊

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[@chaitanyachemistryadd6269]

Nice explainaction. Sir

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[@rajendragurukar4986]

Thank you sir ❤️

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[@praveens4902]

Helped me a lot

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[@learningengineeringwithsj2448]

Thanku so much sir 😍😍😍😍😍

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[@navedandhuzaifs]

Thanks for helping 😊

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[@passinstitutions867]

Sir, everything is so clear.. 👍👍👍
But i have small doubt that is, In a wave form the X axis is considered as time in (sec) but π, 2π, 3π represents in (radians)
So tell me whether x axis is in seconds??
or
radians??

[@ECAcademy]

Here pi, 2pi and so on are time periods...
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[@salkineniswetha9505]

Ha kk sir thank for that 😀

[@rsmrony55]

excellent, sir

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[@despoticscars8753]

Good explanation

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[@Aman-tr4bb]

Aapko pta hai mujhe ye apne poore semester samaj nhi aya but aaj aya

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[@authenhicseries2530]

Why base is 2pie while in case of Avg value of half cycle sin wave we take the base pie/2

[@ECAcademy]

Base for FWR is 1/2pi... For HWR it is 1/pi...
Hope this is helpful...
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[@pachipulusugowtham1122]

thank you so much sir

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[@sejal6319]

Why we are taking base as 2π

[@ECAcademy]

One complete cycle is form 0 to 2pi that why we take base as 2pi
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[@dineshsrikar8758]

Sir explain vdc also

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Check the playlist... I have explained Vdc also... do SUBSCRIBE and keep supporting EC Academy 👍

[@abhijeetchougule3174]

Thank u sir.

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[@abhijeetchougule3174]

@@ECAcademy done ❤️

[@puskar2957]

Sir why base is 2pie

[@ECAcademy]

Because one cycle is from 0 to 2pi as you can see from the waveform... we will take base as 2pi
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[@tariqueanwar7520]

Thanks sir

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[@salkineniswetha9505]

No sir answer wrong at last answer is 2 IM ÷π

[@ECAcademy]

Answer shown is correct… 2Im/pi is for full wave rectifier…
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