I've seen 10 videos of the FTC. I could repeat it in my sleep. Yet I don't feel that I understand it at gut level. The notation f(of something) is sometimes used for fu ctions and sometimes used for values.
The proof uses the mean value theorem for integrals, whose proof requires the use of Fundamental Theorem Of Calculus. So, they become cyclic proofs then. Is there any proof of mean Value theorem for integrals which doesn't use Fundamental Theorem of Calculus...
I've seen 10 videos of the FTC. I could repeat it in my sleep. Yet I don't feel that I understand it at gut level. The notation f(of something) is sometimes used for fu ctions and sometimes used for values.
Easy and simply
thanks man
The proof uses the mean value theorem for integrals, whose proof requires the use of Fundamental Theorem Of Calculus. So, they become cyclic proofs then. Is there any proof of mean Value theorem for integrals which doesn't use Fundamental Theorem of Calculus...
Puneet Kumar Singh Spivak calculus has the proof you are looking for
the mean value theorem for integrals can be proven without ftc