I believe to understand these objectives of 9:24, the proper time frame is required. The correct time frame is NOT the Lamb of God's first coming some 2,000 years ago, but is instead well AFTER His Second Coming, well AFTER He is ruling over Judah. To bolster what I am claiming, consider the fact that NONE of the objectives are currently met. Also, consider the objective apply to Daniel's "people" AND the city of Jerusalem (not just the former). Who could make the claim that the transgression is finished when it hasn't even started (the reign of the beasts); like sin still abounds and will abound even more in the times to come; no reconciliation has been made by Israel for her sins; again, "everlasting righteousness" is certainly not the case today; and I believe you stumbled a bit on sealing up vision and prophecy, again because it is clear that vision and prophecy are yet future to us in this day; and finally, the Lion of Judah has not been anointed as King over Israel. Thus, all six of these prophetic objections are yet future in their fulfillment. Of course, the "ground work" has been accomplished by Christ, but the objectives are still "in progress." No, Christ's return will initially ONLY include conquest of the Southern Kingdom of Judah, leaving the Northern Kingdom as an unfinished issue, which Christ will deal with after a period of 400 years. In other words, the conquest of Judah and the conquest of the Northern Kingdom of wayward Israel will be separated by a four-hundred year period -- four hundred years INTO the Millennial Reign. The 400 years is 10 x 40, and the number 40 is known to be associated with trials, testing, punishment, etc., so this fits. The Lion of Judah and the evil King of the North will coexist over these four-hundred years, with the Lion in the south and the evil beast king in the north. Their confrontation is outline in Daniel 11.
I forgot to mention that I disagree with the year-for-a-day conversion you're doing, simply because the phrasing is "seventy sevens" and I find no precedence in the Bible for dividing a year into seven parts (the months (12) do not divide evenly by 7, the days (354 or 383, etc) do not divide by 7). The day-for-a-year basis you use is from what is really just a figure of speech and does NOT suggest that it be used as a conversion factor. If you think it does, then the obvious question is, "why didn't the Author of Scripture (through Daniel in this case) simply use years in the first place?" What would be the Author's "angle" by using "days" if he really means "years"? Does He want us to practice grade-school math? I don't think so. There is absolutely no reason I can think of (or have ever heard or read) that would explain using days when He really meant years. So I believe this is an interpretation error, and a big one indeed because it alters the understanding of the prophecy's applicability in terms of times. I would urge you to reconsider your approach on converting "seventy sevens" into 490 years. Think about it, you're first converting "sevens" into days, then taking another step and swapping the unit of measure (days) in years. That's actually TWO steps to convert and really shouldn't you be at 70 weeks and not 490 years? Is this really indicated? Is this really sound hermeneutics? I think not. The time span is 70 weeks (490 days). That's all the verse says... So justification to then swap the units from days to years needs to be explicit, since that obviously radically changes the meaning.
In watching the balance of the video, I again must object to the adding of 7 and 62. What is the reason the prophecy presenting 69 as a sum of two addends (of many possibilities)? The obvious question is if 69 were the intention of the Author of Scripture, then why not just say that? You seem to recognize the milestone at 7 "weeks", although there is no known event to occur then, as you stated, "we're not sure..." 69 is a derived value NOT in the prophecy, leading to the fictitious "70th week" which expositors posit as the time of tribulation. So much guesswork going on here, the whole interpretation is invalid. Also, the Lamb of God's ministry was not three years long. I appreciate the video, I just think it's full of holes. Big holes.
The mystery of salvation is a two-part process , Jesus only came for the children of Israel, Hebrews 2:14-17 The outpouring of the holy Spirit and gathering of The children of Israel lasted for 40 years, in 70 AD The outpouring of the holy Spirit stopped, The book of Revelation was written to the last of the anointed churches, The gentiles of the New testament are not true gentiles, they were of the 10 lost tribes who had been scattered throughout the Greco-Roman empire hundreds of years prior, All of the first century church (Israel) 144k are resting until their resurrection, after 70 AD true gentiles Greco-Roman's appropriated and disseminated false Christianity throughout Europe, becoming the beast with the 10 horns, Western civilization is the new Roman empire, and the beast that will make war with the two witnesses, when the 10 horns see them ascend to heaven, they will realize they've been deceived and will be converted, The Great tribulation begins after the two witnessess are resurrected.
I agree with you about 27AD being the beginning of the Jesus' ministry. Have you heard that the earliest church fathers said the ministry of Jesus was just over a year? The verse in John was added to the Bible as a fabrication much later.
Jesus ministry could not have been a year as he is the one who makes who makes the covenant within 7 years 3 and 1/2 years remain, it even mentions the gap in between,as the time of desolations (unbelieving jews) Daniel 9:27
@@bertlorenz4252 That is not true. Irenaeus deals with this idea floating around in his day. Clement of Alexandeia fell for it. The middle passover is also in Luke 10. When it says, the second first sabbath, it is saying the second sabbath after the new year, which start at passover.
Could it be, to finish the transgression and make end of sins, will come when Jesus is coming back as soon this Äon is completed? To bring everlasting righteousness, a new heaven and earth promised to Yahs faithful servants. The complete destruction of all evil is needed to bring in this paradise who was in the beginning.
The decree 458 , seems to be accurate so his anointing in 26 AD , makes 483 , years then the three and a half year ministry, of which after his death Judah was blinded ( made desolate) impart and then in full in 70AD, so the decree of desolations started at jesus's death, and will end when the times of the gentiles are fulfilled, The times of the gentiles is when God offers salvation to the gentiles, Jesus first coming was a salvation to the children of Israel.
I believe to understand these objectives of 9:24, the proper time frame is required. The correct time frame is NOT the Lamb of God's first coming some 2,000 years ago, but is instead well AFTER His Second Coming, well AFTER He is ruling over Judah. To bolster what I am claiming, consider the fact that NONE of the objectives are currently met. Also, consider the objective apply to Daniel's "people" AND the city of Jerusalem (not just the former). Who could make the claim that the transgression is finished when it hasn't even started (the reign of the beasts); like sin still abounds and will abound even more in the times to come; no reconciliation has been made by Israel for her sins; again, "everlasting righteousness" is certainly not the case today; and I believe you stumbled a bit on sealing up vision and prophecy, again because it is clear that vision and prophecy are yet future to us in this day; and finally, the Lion of Judah has not been anointed as King over Israel. Thus, all six of these prophetic objections are yet future in their fulfillment. Of course, the "ground work" has been accomplished by Christ, but the objectives are still "in progress."
No, Christ's return will initially ONLY include conquest of the Southern Kingdom of Judah, leaving the Northern Kingdom as an unfinished issue, which Christ will deal with after a period of 400 years. In other words, the conquest of Judah and the conquest of the Northern Kingdom of wayward Israel will be separated by a four-hundred year period -- four hundred years INTO the Millennial Reign. The 400 years is 10 x 40, and the number 40 is known to be associated with trials, testing, punishment, etc., so this fits. The Lion of Judah and the evil King of the North will coexist over these four-hundred years, with the Lion in the south and the evil beast king in the north. Their confrontation is outline in Daniel 11.
I forgot to mention that I disagree with the year-for-a-day conversion you're doing, simply because the phrasing is "seventy sevens" and I find no precedence in the Bible for dividing a year into seven parts (the months (12) do not divide evenly by 7, the days (354 or 383, etc) do not divide by 7). The day-for-a-year basis you use is from what is really just a figure of speech and does NOT suggest that it be used as a conversion factor. If you think it does, then the obvious question is, "why didn't the Author of Scripture (through Daniel in this case) simply use years in the first place?" What would be the Author's "angle" by using "days" if he really means "years"? Does He want us to practice grade-school math? I don't think so. There is absolutely no reason I can think of (or have ever heard or read) that would explain using days when He really meant years. So I believe this is an interpretation error, and a big one indeed because it alters the understanding of the prophecy's applicability in terms of times. I would urge you to reconsider your approach on converting "seventy sevens" into 490 years. Think about it, you're first converting "sevens" into days, then taking another step and swapping the unit of measure (days) in years. That's actually TWO steps to convert and really shouldn't you be at 70 weeks and not 490 years? Is this really indicated? Is this really sound hermeneutics? I think not. The time span is 70 weeks (490 days). That's all the verse says... So justification to then swap the units from days to years needs to be explicit, since that obviously radically changes the meaning.
In watching the balance of the video, I again must object to the adding of 7 and 62. What is the reason the prophecy presenting 69 as a sum of two addends (of many possibilities)? The obvious question is if 69 were the intention of the Author of Scripture, then why not just say that? You seem to recognize the milestone at 7 "weeks", although there is no known event to occur then, as you stated, "we're not sure..." 69 is a derived value NOT in the prophecy, leading to the fictitious "70th week" which expositors posit as the time of tribulation. So much guesswork going on here, the whole interpretation is invalid.
Also, the Lamb of God's ministry was not three years long.
I appreciate the video, I just think it's full of holes. Big holes.
The mystery of salvation is a two-part process , Jesus only came for the children of Israel, Hebrews 2:14-17 The outpouring of the holy Spirit and gathering of The children of Israel lasted for 40 years, in 70 AD The outpouring of the holy Spirit stopped, The book of Revelation was written to the last of the anointed churches, The gentiles of the New testament are not true gentiles, they were of the 10 lost tribes who had been scattered throughout the Greco-Roman empire hundreds of years prior, All of the first century church (Israel) 144k are resting until their resurrection, after 70 AD true gentiles Greco-Roman's appropriated and disseminated false Christianity throughout Europe, becoming the beast with the 10 horns, Western civilization is the new Roman empire, and the beast that will make war with the two witnesses, when the 10 horns see them ascend to heaven, they will realize they've been deceived and will be converted, The Great tribulation begins after the two witnessess are resurrected.
I agree with you about 27AD being the beginning of the Jesus' ministry. Have you heard that the earliest church fathers said the ministry of Jesus was just over a year? The verse in John was added to the Bible as a fabrication much later.
@@bertlorenz4252 what verse in John are you referring to?
May i ask what verse in John you are reffing to and which Bible translation? Thank u
Jesus ministry could not have been a year as he is the one who makes who makes the covenant within 7 years 3 and 1/2 years remain, it even mentions the gap in between,as the time of desolations (unbelieving jews) Daniel 9:27
@@bertlorenz4252 That is not true. Irenaeus deals with this idea floating around in his day. Clement of Alexandeia fell for it. The middle passover is also in Luke 10. When it says, the second first sabbath, it is saying the second sabbath after the new year, which start at passover.
Could it be, to finish the transgression and make end of sins, will come when Jesus is coming back as soon this Äon is completed? To bring everlasting righteousness, a new heaven and earth promised to Yahs faithful servants. The complete destruction of all evil is needed to bring in this paradise who was in the beginning.
Jesus died in the spring of 31 AD, and Stephen was stoned 34AD.
The decree 458 , seems to be accurate so his anointing in 26 AD , makes 483 , years then the three and a half year ministry, of which after his death Judah was blinded ( made desolate) impart and then in full in 70AD, so the decree of desolations started at jesus's death, and will end when the times of the gentiles are fulfilled, The times of the gentiles is when God offers salvation to the gentiles, Jesus first coming was a salvation to the children of Israel.