IMO 2024 Problem 2 - If you LOVE *number theory* and HATE *geometry*, it's a field day!
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- Опубліковано 5 вер 2024
- #mathematics #olympiad #math
International Mathematical Olympiad (IMO) 2024 Day 1
Solutions and discussion of problem 2
65th International Mathematical Olympiad Bath UK
Problem 2 - Number Theory
This is my problem! Great explanation and motivation :) Hope you enjoy the problem.
Kerennnn🔥🔥
Amazing!!
could u stop capping? everyone knows it's just a cap
@@Linhkinhbrods no bro, he isnt lie. in my country, he is a gold medalist and absolute winner in our National Olympiad.
hes our gold medalist @@Linhkinhbrods
q=ab+1 felt natural to me because of that lcm problem from the Japan Math Olympiad you posted recently (in that video, we set n+f(m)=mf(m)+1 to make gcd(n+f(m), m)=gcd(n+f(m), f(m))=1).
That's great to hear! Yeah doing similar problems before helps!
really clear explanation and solution! looking forward to turbo the snail :D
😂
I think this is a quite an elegant problem! At the same time, it is not impossible. What do you think?
This video was very helpful to turn back my sense of imo problems.
Can be a little quicker in the end: if q | a-1 then a-1=0 since q>a.
I love Number Theory but failed to solve this in the IMO 😢
Damn u went to imo?
i proved for (a,b) with gcd=1 , setting x=a+b , for every n=T*(ord of b modulo x)+1 , g=(a multiple of x) . And otherwise , g =1 . Then i had to prove for wlog a1 and I divided it into 2 cases being 1)k=a and 2) k
I found the solution in this way:
let q>2 is prime and not divide a,b. We want q | GSD(n). Then a^n=-b mod q, b^n = (-a^n)^n = (-1)^n * a^(n^2) = -a , a^(n^2-1) = a^((n-1)*(n+1)) = (-1)^(n+1) mod q.
It is easy to see that n=q-2 is ok, because a^(q-1)=1 mod q.
Then b = -a^(q-2) = -1/a mod q. a*b = -1 mod q.
We can use nay prime divisor of the a*b+1 as q.
nice solution but at the end q can be equal to 1 in case a = 0 or b = 0 . in reverse, for ( a , 0 ) ( 0 , b ) that works to .
a and b need to be positive. That's why I said verbally in the solution that q can be 1 or 2, but the only solution is q =2 with a=b=1.
I think this problem was too easy for p2. but it was very nice, it took me around 1 hour.
Yeah! I think it's pretty manageable and suitable as a great P2!
But what if I LOVE *geometry* and am scared of NT ?
Let's just say this year's problem set isn't very favourable to those strong in geometry! Only a P4 geometry!!
@@dedekindcuts3589 im never placing to the imo(got 4 years left) but there is no way id ever get this lucky
Drop maths, geometry is for nerds only
Tried it for 2 hrs but didn’t quite get there, I am very pleased with how far I got however
As long as progress is made!
My solution:
Let’s take the gdc of the smallest value of n:
gdc( a^1 + b, b^1 + a) = a + b
Logically, a + b is the gdc so it has to divide every value of n in the values of a and b we want.
a + b | a^n + b
a + b | b^n + a
=> a + b | a^n + b^n + a + b
=> a + b | a^n + b^n
=> a + b | ba^(n-1) + b^n
=> a + b | b^2a^(n-2) + b^n
•••
=> a + b | 2b^n
Let’s suppose that an and b aren’t equal.
Rewriting a as b + x we have:
2b + x | 2b^n
For n=1
2b + x | 2b
Contradiction.
Therefore, a=b.
gdc( a^n + a, a^n + a) = g
g = a^n + a
The only value which is constant for every value of n is 1.
So, a = b = 1.
The gcd only has to be *eventually* constant. It need not be constant from n=1. So even though a+b is the gcd when n=1, it does not mean a+b need to divide all the gcd for larger values of n.
@@dedekindcuts3589 indeed. Thank you for pointing the mistake.
Honestly I am preparing for first stage of imo but I solved problem 1 and 2 because I learnt only number theory
It's a good start!
Good problem
I agree!
I had all the intuition you did until the 10th minute of the video. I just really struggled with developing a construction. Any insights how to improve on this?
The construction is the hardest part of this problem. Someone pointed out a similar past problem where you want the power to be -1 mod and -1 mod b, so you use ab-1. I think doing more problems can help!
But only a=b is necessary...... Need not be equal to 1 as g don't meant to be same in every case!!
@@IneidSmz-qz4nqg has to be the same for every n
Can you elaborate how q|a^N +b and q|b^N +a implies q|a^N+1 +b q|b^N+1 +a at 12:42
I suppose for hypothesis since for all n>=N the gcd is g and q divides g.
Why does one have :
b^n = (- 1)^n mod(b + 1)
b is one less than b+1, so b = -1 (mod b+1)
Why imo is giving easy problems
How do you write? What do you use to make videos?
I simply use powerpoint (: