I am not the French guy, so I'll take his place this time around "ok cool": 1:14, 2:16 (pen scratches ASMR), 3:24, 6:16, 8:34 "terribly sorry (about that)": 0:03, 6:47
Hello, thanks for your attempt. You did a good job, you can be him while he's gone. I also enjoyed that you included ASMR pen scratch in the list. Overall, the experience was positive as I can now click any of the timestamps you provided and hear the author speak the phrase. I do not know what happened to French guy, but we can hope he is okay and safe. For now, I'm voting you to take his place.
Do a x=1/t sub on original integral that gives I = -I + (alpha-beta) int 0 to ∞ dx/1+x² so I = π(alpha-beta)/4 Thanks a lot for sharing new methods and manipulations . Each and every video of yours is a gem!
I know this will get drowned out. But on mathstackexchange I say an integral I haven’t been able to solve easily. The integral from 0 to 1 of f(x)=(x^3)tan(x^2). I tried Feynmans, exponentiating it, by parts, and writing it using summation. Can you give me a solution, or better yet a step by step?
Hello , can we solve \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}\frac{dx}{\left( e^x-x ight)^{n}+\pi^{n}} for any natural number n greater than or equal to 2 ? Can u make a video about that ? However, I solved this problem for n=2 by using residue theorem and rectangle contour with height of i2pi and lengh of 2R : beautiful result with 1/(W(1)+1) where W is the principal branch of W lambert function but i don't know how to approch this problem for any natural number n greater than or equal to 2... Can i have a help ? Thx
Hello , sorry for being annoying , may you complete your complex analysis explanation , it's very nice but I want more 🙂 . because I hope I can use counter intergals for solving so many things ...
@@lotaniq4449 But doesn't leave that us with extra negative sign? Since a - θ evaluated at a is 0 and at 0 it's a, so the bounds are upside down now...
@@absol4844 the lower and upper limits will be interchanged if you do the substitution so to make the limits same you use the negative sign. This called the King property check it out :}
Hi,
"ok, cool" : 1:14 , 2:16 , 3:25 , 4:25 , 6:17 ,
"terribly sorry about that" : 5:01 , 6:49 , 8:35 .
woah! he's here
I think you meant to add 8:35 to the ok cool category
@@stefanalecu9532 ok, I noted a "TSAT" at 8:35, maybe I confused, thanks a lot.
can already tell its gonna be a banger
I am not the French guy, so I'll take his place this time around
"ok cool": 1:14, 2:16 (pen scratches ASMR), 3:24, 6:16, 8:34
"terribly sorry (about that)": 0:03, 6:47
I do need a UA-cam plugin to un-OKcool the video, could someone help? 🤣
Hello, thanks for your attempt. You did a good job, you can be him while he's gone. I also enjoyed that you included ASMR pen scratch in the list. Overall, the experience was positive as I can now click any of the timestamps you provided and hear the author speak the phrase. I do not know what happened to French guy, but we can hope he is okay and safe. For now, I'm voting you to take his place.
@@alphazero339 wait a minute 🤣
@@alphazero339 I can't guarantee I'll be on time, but I'll try if the guy above me can't do it
Waiting for the french guy to list the "ok cool" and "terribly sorry about that" (:
He must have retired
I might unsubscribe because of that🤣
Terribly sorry about that, I am back 🗼💈
@CM63_France okaay, cool
😂
Do a x=1/t sub on original integral that gives I = -I + (alpha-beta) int 0 to ∞ dx/1+x² so I = π(alpha-beta)/4
Thanks a lot for sharing new methods and manipulations . Each and every video of yours is a gem!
Ya i also did that i am way too lasy . What to do . But the solution develepment in the video is kinda cool
awesome approach bhaiya
Wow, can it be that simple? I just checked it. Incredible, awesome! What a symmetry! 🎉
@@rishabhhappy rishabh bro 🌚🗿
Well it's an equivalent transformation since he did x to arctanx to π/2 - χ
I think this is the cleanest solution I've ever seen 😮
Very nice idea. Thank you
Yep, you have a talent in choosing really elegant integrals.
@@trelosyiaellinika thanks mate
That was pretty awesome!
Great video i hope for more videos.
Expectation: Some combination of gamma, beta and zeta. Reality: A linear function with delusions of grandeur.
sub x-> 1/x gives you the answer on a single line
Yea
Tup
@Math 505 any tips on how to identify which substituition I should make to solve more difficult integrals?
The expansion of tan is not necessary here
I remember that there is a similar question giving α=sqrt(2)
Can I1 be solved by doing a simple fraction decomposition from the begining ? If yes please tell me how i've trying and i found no solution
X=tgθ..poi uso Feymann I(α)..I'(α)..I(β)..I'(β).2I'=π/2....I=(π/4)(α-β)
okay this is iis awesome
Kamaal bhai, no video for 12 days 🥲, missing the awesome problems you solve
can you solve the integral from : 0 to infinity of (dx/((x²+1)(pi²+ln²(x))) , btw , i solved the integral the is result is "2/pi -1/2"
I know this will get drowned out. But on mathstackexchange I say an integral I haven’t been able to solve easily. The integral from 0 to 1 of f(x)=(x^3)tan(x^2). I tried Feynmans, exponentiating it, by parts, and writing it using summation. Can you give me a solution, or better yet a step by step?
@@charliecox13 I'll take a shot at it
Was interesting
please make a video of how to do the leibniz rule by details please and when can we switch the operators
Hello , can we solve \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}\frac{dx}{\left( e^x-x
ight)^{n}+\pi^{n}} for any natural number n greater than or equal to 2 ? Can u make a video about that ?
However, I solved this problem for n=2 by using residue theorem and rectangle contour with height of i2pi and lengh of 2R : beautiful result with 1/(W(1)+1) where W is the principal branch of W lambert function but i don't know how to approch this problem for any natural number n greater than or equal to 2...
Can i have a help ?
Thx
Hello , sorry for being annoying , may you complete your complex analysis explanation , it's very nice but I want more 🙂 .
because I hope I can use counter intergals for solving so many things ...
I(ß) = 0??
Day by day kamaal questions are getting juicy . ❤
when can theta be transformed to pi/2 - theta? (6:23)
If the limits are from (0 to a), you can always do a substitution theta’ = a - theta. Its just a substitution, easy to verify.
@@lotaniq4449 But doesn't leave that us with extra negative sign? Since a - θ evaluated at a is 0 and at 0 it's a, so the bounds are upside down now...
@@absol4844 yes but dtheta’=-dtheta, so that - cancels the other -
@@absol4844 the lower and upper limits will be interchanged if you do the substitution so to make the limits same you use the negative sign. This called the King property check it out :}
It's called the King property, it can be easily proved by substitution (lower limit + upper limit -t)
okayyy cool
Noice
👏👏👏❤♥🙏👍
kamaal can i be the zeta to your (s) ? (no diddy)
Greetings and welcome back our kamaal😌✨🤌 my ears were eagerly waiting for your ohk cool and terribly sorry about that😭🤌✨💓