most definitions have the value c between intervals [a,b]. Doesn't it make a difference when you mention f(a) and f(b)? because that is value of y? and if that is y then you mentioned x again which is between interval (a,b), so it does not include a and b? i presume the x zero is the solution to the function and hence, its value in the function renders zero. Therefore, what is the purpose of mentioning c? The position of the c here is y and hence it is equal to zero when x solution is put into the function that equals c? confusing af
I'm stuck on a question related to this video: use the intermediate value theorem to show that cos√x = (e^x)-2 has a solution in (0, 1). I tried subbing both 0 and 1 into the equation but it all came out negative.
If this was to applied to a function not equal to 0, lets say 100. Would you find a f(a)100?
What if the question asks about proving that there is exactly ONE solution?
Great job. Just found out about your videos. Keep up with the good work.
thanks man!
most definitions have the value c between intervals [a,b]. Doesn't it make a difference when you mention f(a) and f(b)? because that is value of y? and if that is y then you mentioned x again which is between interval (a,b), so it does not include a and b? i presume the x zero is the solution to the function and hence, its value in the function renders zero. Therefore, what is the purpose of mentioning c? The position of the c here is y and hence it is equal to zero when x solution is put into the function that equals c? confusing af
I'm stuck on a question related to this video:
use the intermediate value theorem to show that cos√x = (e^x)-2 has a solution in (0, 1).
I tried subbing both 0 and 1 into the equation but it all came out negative.
Did you ever solve it?
Why didnt he use -1?
b/c 5>0 and he was trying to find a y value less than 0