At 24:38 - confused by how I'd determine how much work can be done in 3 months by multiplying cycle time by throughput. Throughput is the number of units you can complete in a given period of time and cycle time is how long to complete "work in progress" for 1 unit. I think I want to multiply the throughput value by the number of periods that makes up 3 months, right? TP = 90 units per month. In 3 months 270 units are completed.
Can you please double check Q40. If you change to Finish-to-Finish, then that means successor finishes at the same time as predecessor. So by adding in lead time for successor, it could cause the successor to finish earlier than predecessor. Do you agree?
Finish to Finish in precedence diagramming means: The second activity cannot finish before the first activity finishes. PMBOK 6, page 190. Hope this helps.
For the First question Would you please elaborate on how to have the vision statement without the scope or requirements? In my google search, i understood that the vision statement should have the end goal identified
Hi David. In Q35, is there a range that delineates high accuracy vs low accuracy. For eg in early estimating Q34 the range was -25 to 75% which seems low accuracy but when does that shift into high accuracy? do we use the -5 to 10% range guide as high accuracy? or will another estimating range also be considered high accuracy?
Good question. There doesn't seem to be any official documentation on high versus low accuracy ranges, but I like your thoughts and they do make sense (the +75% versus +10% ones). I think any question will give some context that we can use.
In Q32 sponsor wants to gain business value as quickly as possible then why not use incremental approach. In option C we are delivering high risk in the sprint.
Because high value is not in routine work but high value components. I imagine it as a project who has run time part and one time part. Run time is maintainsnce delivering improvements and one time delivers high value
Question #33 is a bit confusing since, in your videos on rolling wave planning, you state that rolling wave is both for agile and predictive (ua-cam.com/video/PwESbblSdQ0/v-deo.html). I thought B was the answer here since you postpone detailed planning (e.g. until more knowledge available), something that is not apparent in option C.
Very good point. I agree - good thinking on your part. Both answers fit and would work on the real exam. The only addition I would make is that we were trying to replace the WBS activity itself. The answer chosen is like a WBS, but in an Agile way with agile terminology.
Wow, the last one is so tricky. I was looking at start to start, because of the parallel thing, and I completely forgot the lead... one question what is the BAU?
@@davidmclachlanproject Thanks so much! English is not my native language, so I need some more explanation sometimes! your videos are such an inspiration, thank you!
Thank you David! your videos helped me to pass the PMP last week with AT in all!
such a decent and clam person.. lots of love from Berlin! Thanks for the videos!
These were tricky but still learning a lot!
Very tough and tricky questions. Thank you once again!
At 24:38 - confused by how I'd determine how much work can be done in 3 months by multiplying cycle time by throughput. Throughput is the number of units you can complete in a given period of time and cycle time is how long to complete "work in progress" for 1 unit. I think I want to multiply the throughput value by the number of periods that makes up 3 months, right? TP = 90 units per month. In 3 months 270 units are completed.
I am absolutely with you on that one. There is no need for cycle time here.
@@GetTheZedl Totally agree too. The cycle time has already been accounted for in the Throughput
Hello thanks for the video, will the questions on the exam be of this difficulty or will it be harder
At leas read 10 different questions with the help of you....!!
Fantastic Questions & tricky on Schedule, Accuracy & precision, ROM cost!
Can you please double check Q40. If you change to Finish-to-Finish, then that means successor finishes at the same time as predecessor. So by adding in lead time for successor, it could cause the successor to finish earlier than predecessor. Do you agree?
Finish to Finish in precedence diagramming means:
The second activity cannot finish before the first activity finishes.
PMBOK 6, page 190.
Hope this helps.
Supremely tricky. Very helpful & informative
and I made only 2 correct :( need to improve!
Where to find these practice question
Hi David, Can we get a pdf copy of these questions
Great job again David❤
For the First question
Would you please elaborate on how to have the vision statement without the scope or requirements?
In my google search, i understood that the vision statement should have the end goal identified
Hi David. In Q35, is there a range that delineates high accuracy vs low accuracy. For eg in early estimating Q34 the range was -25 to 75% which seems low accuracy but when does that shift into high accuracy? do we use the -5 to 10% range guide as high accuracy? or will another estimating range also be considered high accuracy?
Good question. There doesn't seem to be any official documentation on high versus low accuracy ranges, but I like your thoughts and they do make sense (the +75% versus +10% ones). I think any question will give some context that we can use.
Your answer (option B) for Q 39 is incorrect. The correct answer is "Multiply throughput per month by three".
Great Video, Thanks alot!
Thank you for this great content
Good questions, could not agree with some answers ))
Thank you.
Did not find the video for Questions 11 to 20.
In Q32 sponsor wants to gain business value as quickly as possible then why not use incremental approach. In option C we are delivering high risk in the sprint.
Exactly my thought! I thought one of the reasons for incremental is to bring value ASAP, which is exactly what the project sponsor is requesting!
Because high value is not in routine work but high value components. I imagine it as a project who has run time part and one time part. Run time is maintainsnce delivering improvements and one time delivers high value
Question #33 is a bit confusing since, in your videos on rolling wave planning, you state that rolling wave is both for agile and predictive (ua-cam.com/video/PwESbblSdQ0/v-deo.html). I thought B was the answer here since you postpone detailed planning (e.g. until more knowledge available), something that is not apparent in option C.
Very good point. I agree - good thinking on your part. Both answers fit and would work on the real exam. The only addition I would make is that we were trying to replace the WBS activity itself. The answer chosen is like a WBS, but in an Agile way with agile terminology.
@@davidmclachlanproject Both would work on the real exam? What does that mean? Some questions will have multiple correct answers of equal value?
Wow, the last one is so tricky. I was looking at start to start, because of the parallel thing, and I completely forgot the lead... one question what is the BAU?
Apologies for the jargon, it is "Business as Usual", or normal operations.
@@davidmclachlanproject Thanks so much! English is not my native language, so I need some more explanation sometimes! your videos are such an inspiration, thank you!
Thank you soooooo much
got almost all wrong. Tricky questions