Because Our Lord had both human will and Divine Will, I wish to understand : a) Is His human will the same as God's will ? Or b) Is His human will being suppressed by His humanity and allows for God's will to actuate in Him as in His Passion in the garden of Gethsemane ?
A: Our Lord’s human will is distinct from His divine will. The reason for this is that He has two distinct natures, the divine nature and the human nature. Natures are principles of operation. And so, if He has two distinct natures, He has two different principles of operation belonging to those natures. He has two distinct intellects, one divine and one human; and He has two distinct wills, one divine and one human. I suggest reading this article from St. Thomas’s Summa: III, q.5, a.3 All this being said, Our Lord’s human will was always perfectly conformed to His divine will; there was never any disagreement between them. See III, q.18. B: His human will is never suppressed. It is always active but always in perfect conformity with His divine will. At the same time, He is able to pray “according to His sensuality”, as St. Thomas says (see III, q. 21, a.2), or pray in a way that expresses the inherent desire of His human body not to be subject to the pain of the Crucifixion.
A: Our Lord’s human will is distinct from His divine will. The reason for this is that He has two distinct natures, the divine nature and the human nature. Natures are principles of operation. And so, if He has two distinct natures, He has two different principles of operation belonging to those natures. He has two distinct intellects, one divine and one human; and He has two distinct wills, one divine and one human. I suggest reading this article from St. Thomas’s Summa: III, q.5, a.3 All this being said, Our Lord’s human will was always perfectly conformed to His divine will; there was never any disagreement between them. See III, q.18. B: His human will is never suppressed. It is always active but always in perfect conformity with His divine will. At the same time, He is able to pray “according to His sensuality”, as St. Thomas says (see III, q. 21, a.2), or pray in a way that expresses the inherent desire of His human body not to be subject to the pain of the Crucifixion.
Always a joy to listen to Fr. Robinson, fair and clear in whatever he presents.
Fascinating discussion. Thank you Fr. Robinson. Thank you Andrew for presenting these episodes.
Father Robinson is one of our best. I can't wait to read this book !
I am looking forward to listening to this interview. Thank you 😊 🙏
God bless the Traditional Dominican Order and the SSPX.
Thanks for this. Important topic.
Listening for the 2nd time bcs it is such a clarifying presentation .
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Beautiful!
Thank you
Lovely breakdown and synopsis, thank you both.
Blessings and appreciation from Sydney Australia.
Because Our Lord had both human will and Divine Will, I wish to understand :
a) Is His human will the same as God's will ? Or
b) Is His human will being suppressed by His humanity and allows for God's will to actuate in Him as in His Passion in the garden of Gethsemane ?
A: Our Lord’s human will is distinct from His divine will. The reason for this is that He has two distinct natures, the divine nature and the human nature. Natures are principles of operation. And so, if He has two distinct natures, He has two different principles of operation belonging to those natures. He has two distinct intellects, one divine and one human; and He has two distinct wills, one divine and one human. I suggest reading this article from St. Thomas’s Summa: III, q.5, a.3
All this being said, Our Lord’s human will was always perfectly conformed to His divine will; there was never any disagreement between them. See III, q.18.
B: His human will is never suppressed. It is always active but always in perfect conformity with His divine will. At the same time, He is able to pray “according to His sensuality”, as St. Thomas says (see III, q. 21, a.2), or pray in a way that expresses the inherent desire of His human body not to be subject to the pain of the Crucifixion.
A: Our Lord’s human will is distinct from His divine will. The reason for this is that He has two distinct natures, the divine nature and the human nature. Natures are principles of operation. And so, if He has two distinct natures, He has two different principles of operation belonging to those natures. He has two distinct intellects, one divine and one human; and He has two distinct wills, one divine and one human. I suggest reading this article from St. Thomas’s Summa: III, q.5, a.3
All this being said, Our Lord’s human will was always perfectly conformed to His divine will; there was never any disagreement between them. See III, q.18.
B: His human will is never suppressed. It is always active but always in perfect conformity with His divine will. At the same time, He is able to pray “according to His sensuality”, as St. Thomas says (see III, q. 21, a.2), or pray in a way that expresses the inherent desire of His human body not to be subject to the pain of the Crucifixion.
I would wonder how this would also apply to relics
Messaging through the Holy Ghost -?? from the divine to the natural ?
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