Probably because one needs a relatively sophisticated math background/education to really follow this stuff, and that is an investment very few people are willing to make. But you're right - no one's stopping anyone from doing so...
@@jonahansen no , lol.. chinese study this in their 10th grades and Indians in their 11th grade , same with most of the other asian countries , its just so basic
@@tanmaymishra9576 wtf no we don't study waves in this depth in 11th in India, wdym?? This is the hardest elective in my college in 1st year. Stop spreading misinformation. And you don't have second order differential equations in JEE advanced either so yeah I can't get from where you are basing this whole argument from
@@Upgradezz Are you asking if there are classes besides those on OCW? If so, as far as I can tell it's only the bigger (edit: in terms of enrollment) classes that have recorded lectures here. Many smaller classes have just lecture notes/assignments, or haven't been added to OCW yet. Here's the catalog for physics stuff: catalog.mit.edu/subjects/8/
If I have a number of glasses, is it possible that I can generate good music from the combination of each glass? How can I simply generate a sound like this 1:07:52 outside the class ? Is this phenomenon 1:13:49 that makes the window glass vibrate when the vehicle passes? At what frequency does our eardrum tear?
At 51:35 when Prof Lee talked about the large ω_d limit, I think tan(δ) is negative and approaches 0 as ω_d goes to infinity (according to the tan(δ) formula obtained earlier in this lecture). Hence δ goes to π as ω_d goes to infinity.
I still can't get why delta goes to π. The limit of that ratio is clearly 0 as ω_d goes to infinity. Why delta is equal to π? Maybe because the solution of tan δ = 0 is δ=0 + k*π. In this case another solution of the equation could be δ=π.
@@lorenzomarchio3694 The tan function exists between closed intervals of 2pi (meaning with verticals asymptotes on both intervals limits). The interval centered on zero goes from minus pi to pi. So lim of tan(x) as x goes to pi is +infinity. That is what he is saying.
there is a error in the calculation of the limit ag 50:00 tan(delta)=Wd/(Wo^2-Wd^2) so, when Wd goes to infinity, tan(delta) goes to Wd/-Wd^2=-0 and tan(delta) goes to pi
50:00 what the heck is d(t) exactly? Is it some driving force? And why does it equal to Delta( sin ( w_d * t))? I don't see the d(t) is the force diagram. And if d(t) is indeed the driving force, shouldn't it be d0 cos(w_d t) something? It's super confusing here
The ambience of this class is so much different from some of the other MIT OCW classes. I don't mean the instructor specifically; it has to do with the way the students look disengaged. It reminds me of undergraduate classes I've been in where people were there because of a requirement, not because they cared about the material.
How can there be only 11 000 views? This is such a great video... And then some people talk about inequalities of education.
Probably because one needs a relatively sophisticated math background/education to really follow this stuff, and that is an investment very few people are willing to make. But you're right - no one's stopping anyone from doing so...
@@jonahansen no , lol.. chinese study this in their 10th grades and Indians in their 11th grade , same with most of the other asian countries , its just so basic
@@tanmaymishra9576 wtf no we don't study waves in this depth in 11th in India, wdym?? This is the hardest elective in my college in 1st year. Stop spreading misinformation. And you don't have second order differential equations in JEE advanced either so yeah I can't get from where you are basing this whole argument from
@1:01:00, how wonderful experiment to demonstrate the driven damped oscillator!!!
Saving my life rn. Have an exam in Classical Mech tomorrow and lecture last Friday was unnecessarily confusing.
I'm taking this paper at my university during lockdown and I come across this? My fees need to be paid to MIT.
This is beautiful
Funnily enough, during lockdown, 8.03 at MIT is currently being taught using exactly these videos, so it seems they really believe in them :P
@@Tenebreon do they have any other classes or only these?
@@Upgradezz Are you asking if there are classes besides those on OCW? If so, as far as I can tell it's only the bigger (edit: in terms of enrollment) classes that have recorded lectures here. Many smaller classes have just lecture notes/assignments, or haven't been added to OCW yet. Here's the catalog for physics stuff: catalog.mit.edu/subjects/8/
Awesome. Days I was doing these purely mathematically without any physical meaning while learning Laplace Transform helped.
Thank you MIT. Respect from Pakistan
Best teacher ever!!!
太棒的課程了。講解很清楚。
If I have a number of glasses, is it possible that I can generate good music from the combination of each glass?
How can I simply generate a sound like this 1:07:52 outside the class ?
Is this phenomenon 1:13:49 that makes the window glass vibrate when the vehicle passes?
At what frequency does our eardrum tear?
I like the resonace phenomena through experiment of wine glass. experiment really helps to understand things better.
At 51:35 when Prof Lee talked about the large ω_d limit, I think tan(δ) is negative and approaches 0 as ω_d goes to infinity (according to the tan(δ) formula obtained earlier in this lecture). Hence δ goes to π as ω_d goes to infinity.
I still can't get why delta goes to π. The limit of that ratio is clearly 0 as ω_d goes to infinity. Why delta is equal to π? Maybe because the solution of tan δ = 0 is δ=0 + k*π. In this case another solution of the equation could be δ=π.
@@lorenzomarchio3694 The tan function exists between closed intervals of 2pi (meaning with verticals asymptotes on both intervals limits). The interval centered on zero goes from minus pi to pi. So lim of tan(x) as x goes to pi is +infinity. That is what he is saying.
Such a beautiful lecture
there is a error in the calculation of the limit ag 50:00 tan(delta)=Wd/(Wo^2-Wd^2) so, when Wd goes to infinity, tan(delta) goes to Wd/-Wd^2=-0 and tan(delta) goes to pi
It's correct
There are 36000 views at the time of this writing. How are there not 36000 likes?
Nice warm up for me
50:00 what the heck is d(t) exactly? Is it some driving force? And why does it equal to Delta( sin ( w_d * t))? I don't see the d(t) is the force diagram. And if d(t) is indeed the driving force, shouldn't it be d0 cos(w_d t) something? It's super confusing here
It's very helpful for students
In the glass where is the spring force?
In the calculations done around 20:00 how can we write driven force as e^iWdt??? I mean it should be Re part or IMZ part of this quantity na?
He just treated the entire function to be complex numbers.
1:00:00 awesome
The ambience of this class is so much different from some of the other MIT OCW classes. I don't mean the instructor specifically; it has to do with the way the students look disengaged. It reminds me of undergraduate classes I've been in where people were there because of a requirement, not because they cared about the material.
Thank you sir
Thank u so much
1:06:14 relationship to Z boson
Pi/2, not Pi
And wouldn't tan(/delta) --> 0 as w_d --> /infinity ?
❤
primero y que paza
uwu
actually actually actually actually (my god)
😂😂