Solving an IMO Problem in 6 Minutes!! | International Mathematical Olympiad 1979 Problem 1

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  • Опубліковано 25 лис 2024

КОМЕНТАРІ • 303

  • @AdoNir
    @AdoNir 3 роки тому +2478

    “Notice that 1979 is prime” of course I noticed

    • @electrogamingandtech6921
      @electrogamingandtech6921 3 роки тому +117

      Yaa of course, we all noticed it 😂😂😂

    • @dimitermitov7875
      @dimitermitov7875 3 роки тому +169

      Well, on the IMO they have a lot of time and checking if 1979 is prime takes about 5 minutes.

    • @maximsollogub3579
      @maximsollogub3579 3 роки тому +351

      They were all ready to see 1979 in a problem of 1979. You always learn things about the number of the year.

    • @littlefermat
      @littlefermat 3 роки тому +177

      A rule of thumb:
      Always study the properties of the year number. Trust me you will need it a lot!😅

    • @-skydning-128
      @-skydning-128 3 роки тому +97

      @@littlefermat Yes, for this specific year 2021 we have it is factorized as 43*47, a very useful thing. If you dont know that you may think 2021 is prime

  • @reluba
    @reluba 3 роки тому +650

    The solution of the problem is so elegant and simple. This is why I've always enjoyed math, yet the spark of finding such a solution often eluded me.

    • @raffaelevalente7811
      @raffaelevalente7811 3 роки тому +9

      To say nothing of the limited time! I can't do almost any problem if I have a limited time because of my anxiety

    • @andrewzhang8512
      @andrewzhang8512 6 місяців тому +5

      I mean you have 1.5 hours

  • @aspotashev
    @aspotashev 4 місяці тому +278

    Lesson learned: Before going to IMO, check if the current year is a prime number.

    • @jiasstudyroom
      @jiasstudyroom 2 місяці тому +20

      But seriously though, before any math competition, we always memorize the prime factorization of the current year, the next year, and the previous year

    • @MishaChorniy
      @MishaChorniy 12 днів тому

      first IMOs looked like IMOs nowadays IMOs looking like templates.. rarely something original and not pushed by..

    • @someone_halal101
      @someone_halal101 8 днів тому

      @@jiasstudyroom so real bro BAHAH BC THEY ALWAYS USE THOSE NUMBERSSS

  • @johnnath4137
    @johnnath4137 3 роки тому +421

    IMO problems get progressively more difficult as you progress from question 1 to question 6. Question 1 is a warm up one and as such this is a good warm up one.

    • @bairnqere7
      @bairnqere7 3 роки тому +19

      It's just because it's ancient

    • @KingstonCzajkowski
      @KingstonCzajkowski 3 роки тому +72

      Nitpicking note: problems 1 and 4 are supposed to be the warmups, 2 and 5 medium, and 3 and 6 TOUGH. The test is split into 1, 2, 3 and 4, 5, 6. Section 2 is generally harder than 1, but 4 usually isn't that hard.

    • @govindasharman425
      @govindasharman425 3 роки тому +1

      Yes true

    • @raffaelevalente7811
      @raffaelevalente7811 3 роки тому +17

      Problem creators are brilliant, too!

    • @clackamashiginger2653
      @clackamashiginger2653 10 місяців тому

      😮🙏​@@bairnqere7u

  • @chrissquarefan86
    @chrissquarefan86 9 місяців тому +141

    The reason b is not divisible by 1979 is because all the denominators in the sum are not divisible by 1979, in general all numbers less than a prime p are not divisible by p. It may be obvious but necessary for a rigorous proof.

  • @numbers93
    @numbers93 3 роки тому +102

    imo, the proof should be left as an exercise to the grader!

  • @takyc7883
    @takyc7883 6 місяців тому +11

    wow pairing the terms up is genius

  • @HaotianWu-bm2fx
    @HaotianWu-bm2fx 7 місяців тому +4

    Graceful solution

  • @sadilhas9118
    @sadilhas9118 13 днів тому +2

    Assume a/b is the answer
    a/b=a.1979/b.1979=p/q
    p=a.1979 , q=b.1979
    So we can say that p is divisible by 1979 it doesn't specify the most reduced form, So why this doesn't works?

  • @sanesanyo
    @sanesanyo 16 днів тому

    I finally solved this problem after thinking about it in my head for few minutes. Felt really proud of myself. Then I realised that I did have a look at the solution 3 months ago but coudlnt directly recall it 😂😂.

  • @tontonbeber4555
    @tontonbeber4555 2 роки тому +116

    That's incredible !! I was a participant at IMO 1979, and made 0 point to that question (I thought it was the most difficult of that event). Now I just had a look at your question and solved it mentally without any pencil/paper in less than 1 minute !!

    • @6b14yeungsinchun-8
      @6b14yeungsinchun-8 Рік тому +87

      you should have made a better story

    • @justsaadunoyeah1234
      @justsaadunoyeah1234 11 місяців тому +14

      Fake

    • @kekehehedede
      @kekehehedede 10 місяців тому +1

      how come lol. it's like a typical Chinese high school math problem - not an easy one but the last problem or one before the last problem.

    • @TheGiulioSeverini
      @TheGiulioSeverini 10 місяців тому +1

      You took too much. These kind of simple questions must be solved while sleeping.

    • @xninja2369
      @xninja2369 5 місяців тому

      ​Yep You learn this type of problem in Sequence & series in high school typically in Asia, you can factor it with (n+2)-(n+1) and creating difference like it. .( just giving example) ​@@kekehehedede

  • @garychan5638
    @garychan5638 3 роки тому +20

    I would like to share some finding(s) with all when I tried to "create" some similar questions. Last term of the question- 1/1,319, 1,319 is/must a Prime! (1,319+1) x 2/3 = 660. 660 is the denominator of the 1st term of modification of the question- i.e. 1/660 + 1/661 +.....+1/1,319 Ha! Ha! Then re-arrange to (1/660 + 1/1,319)+(1/661 + 1/1,318)+.....(1/989 + 1/990).
    The numerators in each & every bracket would become 1,979! The proof would be easy. If the denominator of the last term of the question isn't a Prime, or if it is a Prime, after adding 1 to it & multiplying by 1/2, the no. obtained not equal to the denominator of the 1st term of the rearrangement of the original question....p is/may not divisible by the pre-set#.((last denominator in the qn. +1) x 3/2, - 1, Not 2/3!)

  • @sinox5
    @sinox5 6 місяців тому +8

    "so yay we are done"
    - every math olympic when they finish a problem

  • @050138
    @050138 3 роки тому +24

    What a beautifully elegant solution to a lovely problem!!! 🥰😍

  • @padraiggluck2980
    @padraiggluck2980 Рік тому +4

    I put the final sum in my calculator and the result is a fraction with enormous numerator and denominator. Without the 1979 factor It approximates to 3.5e-4.

  • @rajsingh8372
    @rajsingh8372 2 роки тому +9

    Sometimes seeing beautiful solution like this remind me why i love math so much

  • @mhm6421
    @mhm6421 10 місяців тому +14

    Here's how I did it:
    If you group the terms 1,2 3,4 etc. you get these terms plus the last 1/1319 term:
    1-1/2=1/2
    1/3-1/4=1/12
    1/5-1/6=1/30
    Making a function to define nth term:
    f(n)=2n(2n-1)=4n^2-2n
    So our sum is just:
    [Sum n=1 to 659 f(n)] + 1/1319
    = 4(1^2 + 2^2... 659^2)-2(1+2+...659)+1/1319
    Using the sum of squares and normal sum formula:
    = 4(329^2) - 2(659)(660)/2+1/1319
    = 4*329*329 - 659*660+1/1319
    = [4*329*329*1319 - 659*660 + 1] / 1319
    So p = 4*329*329*1319 - 659*660 + 1
    Then you do mod 1979 on it and viola!

    • @Kettwiesel25
      @Kettwiesel25 10 місяців тому +9

      The first trick is not bad, but you have to sum 1/f(n), not f(n)... And there is no inverse square sum formula. Your is solution is also way too big, how did you not notice that? It should be smaller than 1 because it is 1-(1/2-1/3)-(1/4-15)-...

  • @raffaelevalente7811
    @raffaelevalente7811 3 роки тому +6

    The creator of this problem is very clever

  • @UniverseIsTheLimit
    @UniverseIsTheLimit 11 місяців тому +41

    Nice solution although I don't think it is obvious that the denominator 'b' in the final line is not divisible by 1979, this would need to be argued about as well

    • @digxx
      @digxx 10 місяців тому +6

      What do you mean? If you have 1/a + 1/b you can split the denominator into common factors c and coprime factors p and q i.e. 1/a+1/b=1/cp + 1/cq =1/c * (1/p + 1/q)=(p+q)/cpq. Since p and q are coprime and c is the greatest common factor of a and b, no divisor of cpq can divide both p and q at the same time, so this is actually already the maximally reduced form. Since a and b are a product of two numbers less than 1979, they can't contain 1979 and so can't c, p and q. The rest would follow inductively.

    • @tongchen1226
      @tongchen1226 10 місяців тому +37

      @@digxx you just spelled out what he believes should be spelled out instead of just stated.

    • @digxx
      @digxx 10 місяців тому +2

      @@tongchen1226 ah, ok.

    • @mthimm1
      @mthimm1 10 місяців тому

      Yes, he seems to assume, that a/b is an integer

    • @Soul-cu8zn
      @Soul-cu8zn 10 місяців тому +2

      ​@@mthimm1no he doesn't

  • @chess_sisyphus5648
    @chess_sisyphus5648 7 місяців тому +1

    Very interesting is how this problem was generated. It turns out that the prime p must be of the form 6k+5 and also 3l+2. Also the reason for 1979 and 1319 in the problem is that 1319 is of the form 4k+3 and 6k+5 happens to be prime.
    Interesting if anything can be said about any of the other cases (number of terms in the sum is 4a+1 or 6k+5 does not happen to be prime)

  • @MyOneFiftiethOfADollar
    @MyOneFiftiethOfADollar 6 місяців тому +10

    I just learned that we can think "critically" in 6 minutes. In school, critical thinking was often associated with "long thinks".

  • @suranjanroy7528
    @suranjanroy7528 2 роки тому +3

    Superb, Awesome! ❤❤.. Let's all think critically 🔥

  • @sayaksengupta4370
    @sayaksengupta4370 Рік тому +2

    Very nice solution. I don’t believe one can get a solution which consists of fewer number of steps.

  • @saranyadas5522
    @saranyadas5522 3 роки тому +7

    Really great video,nice content

  • @sanesanyo
    @sanesanyo 3 місяці тому

    Very elegant solution..loved it.

  • @natico-w812
    @natico-w812 Місяць тому

    this is such a good solution

  • @Fire_Axus
    @Fire_Axus 6 місяців тому +3

    if the result is a reduced fraction a/b where a and b are integers, then we can also write it as 1979a/(1979b). We can then substitute p=1979a and q=1979b: p/q. Because a is an integer, 1979a and therefore q are divisible by 1979.

    • @Gandarf_
      @Gandarf_ 5 місяців тому +2

      The task is to solve for all p and q that satisfy given equation, your solution works only for trivial cases ;)

  • @INSANEDisciple-p8j
    @INSANEDisciple-p8j 7 місяців тому

    The 2nd power to the digit equals let the division in the equation equal the answer.

  • @davidconway5399
    @davidconway5399 3 роки тому +3

    0-1/12 has a cool pattern function

  • @jaimeespinoza6989
    @jaimeespinoza6989 10 місяців тому

    Nice resolution, elegant and simple

  • @gfsadds5574
    @gfsadds5574 3 роки тому +54

    You sound like from HK

    • @ericzhu6620
      @ericzhu6620 3 роки тому +1

      he is actually

    • @gamedepths4792
      @gamedepths4792 3 роки тому

      Whats HK?

    • @ericzhu6620
      @ericzhu6620 3 роки тому

      @@gamedepths4792 Hong Kong

    • @fnef8j8edjdn36
      @fnef8j8edjdn36 3 роки тому +2

      confirmed by hker, but i study in international sch so i have proper eng

    • @amychan770
      @amychan770 3 роки тому +2

      I am from hk and his accent sounds so familiar to me, especially that tone

  • @pranitmendhe99
    @pranitmendhe99 3 роки тому +2

    You are purely genius 👏👏

  • @falknfurter
    @falknfurter 4 місяці тому +4

    What makes it a worthy IMO problem is that (a) the mathematical prerequisites to understand and solve the problem are quite modest: summation, cancellation and basic prime number facts and (b) that it is very hard to actually find the solution on your own under the time constraints of a written exam.

    • @falknfurter
      @falknfurter 4 місяці тому

      For the non-mathematically gifted there is another way to show the proposition: Caclulate the sum p/q with a computer to the lowest terms and check the remainders mod 1979. They are 0 for the numerator (as expected) and 1044 for the denomitator. Now we just have to notice that every presentation p/q for the sum can be written as p=k*p_min, q=k*q_min for some integer k where p_min/q_min is the presentation to the lowest term. As p_min is divisible by 1979 also p=k*p_min is divisible by 1979 and the proposition follows. For practical matters, p_min has 577 digits in decimal representation and q_min has 578. Python using the fractions module and a few lines of code help us out.

  • @scottychen2397
    @scottychen2397 5 місяців тому

    This is a beautiful problem:
    At the solution,
    Can you say that actually, a = 1.
    … and then it’s a little suspect what youre doing with this.
    Since one is summing over integers strictly not on the prime ideal,
    The denominator isn’t carrying factors of this prime.
    So youre looking at a rational: something in lowest form
    1979/…
    … by just observing its definition:
    No spooky logic implied,
    Doesn’t have any factors of this prime.
    … which makes me think its not too good of a problem after all these years.. I know thats not what theyre asking.
    It’s interesting to see if you can find this symetry elsewhere in this summation to find out if one can write this as 1979*a where a isn’t actually 1:
    This would beget spooky logic.
    If 1979 isn’t actually a prime: then none of this holds … - but one can’t be unsure about this pre-argumentation
    The only thing one can call beautiful is:
    The sameness between
    (1) Taking away a subsequence, additively
    (2) giving that same sequence, additively, whilst taking away
    .. the ring element ‘2’ multiplied by the same thing one is giving.
    This is the kind of trick one is using here.

  • @sbares
    @sbares 2 місяці тому

    After 4:30, you may also simply note that in the field F_1979,
    1/k + 1/(1979-k) = 1/k + 1/-k = 0.

  • @ugartepinochet
    @ugartepinochet 10 місяців тому

    It is rigorous enough cause natural series which start and finish by numbers are both not even or both not odd have even number of terms and this grouping can be made.

  • @ericbray1040
    @ericbray1040 10 місяців тому

    from fractions import Fraction
    total = Fraction(0)
    for den in range(1, 1320):
    total += (-1)**(den + 1) * Fraction(1, den)
    print(total.numerator % 1979 == 0) #True

  • @pblpbl3122
    @pblpbl3122 3 роки тому +2

    Could you cover some geometry problems?

  • @nickcheng2547
    @nickcheng2547 3 роки тому +5

    The handwriting looks familiar...

  • @sekarganesan
    @sekarganesan 3 роки тому +6

    Magical.

  • @CurrentlyObsessively
    @CurrentlyObsessively 4 місяці тому +5

    Your writing is like sanskrit

  • @supalupallama
    @supalupallama 5 місяців тому

    I love the content

  • @honestcommenter8424
    @honestcommenter8424 10 місяців тому +4

    Not sure. For the number to be dividable by 1979, a/b has to be integer. Not sure if that summation at the end results into an integer.

    • @danielleza908
      @danielleza908 5 місяців тому +5

      a/b doesn't have to be an integer (in fact, it isn't). You're only checking if the numerator p is divisible by 1979, not the whole number.

  • @Zytaco
    @Zytaco 4 місяці тому

    I don't see it written anywhere that p over q has to be the reduced fraction. Simply note that a sum of fractions is rational, call it a over b, and let p=1979a and q=1979b.

  • @iannalemme
    @iannalemme 5 місяців тому

    this is brilliant

  • @dionisis1917
    @dionisis1917 3 роки тому +1

    Find all a,b,c,n natural number such that:
    a^3+b^3+c^3=n*a^2*b^2*c^2

  • @vbcool83
    @vbcool83 4 місяці тому

    Nice problem!

  • @xJetbrains
    @xJetbrains 3 місяці тому +3

    1:58 Must be a sum inside the parethesis

  • @abhinavkshitij6501
    @abhinavkshitij6501 3 роки тому +20

    Wow thanks from India , my school teacher of 8th grade gave me this homework, I didn't know it was from imo 😅

    • @benyseus6325
      @benyseus6325 3 роки тому +16

      How come every JEE doing Indian claims to be so smart but their country is so polluted? Look at Ganga river, they can’t even solve that. Smart for what, tech sup?

    • @yatharthgupta6468
      @yatharthgupta6468 3 роки тому +3

      @@benyseus6325 rip logic .. dumbhead

    • @alanyadullarcemiyeti
      @alanyadullarcemiyeti 3 роки тому +3

      @@benyseus6325 what does that have to do with math? and how did you come to the conclusion that Indians claim themselves smart?

    • @benyseus6325
      @benyseus6325 3 роки тому +8

      @@alanyadullarcemiyeti lol. Just look at the comments, they are always claiming to be smart. But they are hypocritical because their country is in turmoil right now. They are not smart because that can do JEE

    • @delvingintothedepths5353
      @delvingintothedepths5353 3 роки тому +3

      @@benyseus6325 If all Indians have an ability to perform better on tests like the JEE, then they *are* smarter. However, there is no evidence to suggest that Indians have such an advantage. So, these claims are wrong (if anybody's really made them). However, the *individuals* who are working their arses off to clear JEE have definitely developed an expertise in those subjects that others don't have. This makes them smarter (arguably, because some people tend to perceive 'smart' as 'gifted') than others. The *individuals* who are actually able to do great in JEE (advanced. not mains. mains are easy) are some of the smartest we (human beings) have.
      As far as pollution and such things are concerned, smartness cannot be determined by the condition of the homeland. Most people have nothing they can do about it (not enough influence or money or smarts to overcome political corruption and stuff like that).
      Of the ones who can actually do something about it, most (most, not all) are selfish, and would rather have a carefree life in some developed nation.
      That's selfishness, heartlessness, maybe even hypocrisy in a lot of cases. The patriotism promoted in India is limited to cheesy stuff like standing up when the national anthem plays in the theatre. Very few people in the society are actually doing something for the country.
      But all of this definitely does nothing to show that Indians are not smart.

  • @cynth0984
    @cynth0984 4 місяці тому

    whatever the value of the series is, multiply the the top and bottom by 1979. that means that the top will be divisible by 1979. done

  • @jamalabdisalam8578
    @jamalabdisalam8578 3 місяці тому

    isn't having the 1979 outside of the sum function already proof that whatever the sum is will be divisible by 1979 since the multiplier is naturally also the factor of the product.

  • @Shomara
    @Shomara 10 місяців тому

    The problem statement didn’t say gcd(p,q)=1, so we can take p/q = (1979p’)/(1979q’)
    Where p’/q’ is equal to the given series. (lol)

  • @magicdude-y9t
    @magicdude-y9t 3 місяці тому

    That was neat

  • @vishalmishra3046
    @vishalmishra3046 10 місяців тому +3

    The idea of adding and subtracting the even terms was great. How did you come up with it ? Any structured way of thinking or just a fluke / irrational-realization that worked ?

  • @keshavb3128
    @keshavb3128 3 роки тому +4

    At first, I thought the first case to consider is to find 1979, which is 1 and 1979 and somehow prove 0(mod 1) and 0(mod 1979)

  • @littlefermat
    @littlefermat 3 роки тому +10

    Math Olympiad coach: Today we'll be learning how to sum.
    Students: Common we are not in 1st grade!
    The door: knock knock ...
    Math Olympiad coach: Come in sir.
    IMO 1979 P1 enters ...
    RIP students.

  • @bizzle9041
    @bizzle9041 3 місяці тому +1

    Can you not seperate them into odd and even like you did then write p/q as the sum from k= 1 to 659 of
    [ 1/(2k-1) - 1/(2k)] which then equals the sum from k = 1 to 659 of
    (1 / (4k^2 -2k). So p/q = (1/2 + 1/12 + 1/30+…) and must be rational since all components of the sum are rational. Then considering
    (p/1979) / q = (p/q) / 1979 which equals (1/1979)(1/2 + 1/12 + 1/30+…) and the is also rational since multiplying rationals produces a rational. Then this implies (p/1979) / q has an integer numerator since that is the definition of a rational number. Therefore p/1979 = k where k is an integer. Thus p is divisible by 1979

  • @Sunny-ch3cx
    @Sunny-ch3cx 3 роки тому +9

    You sounds 5 years younger than me, but 500 times smarter.

  • @Parthiv.snow07
    @Parthiv.snow07 3 роки тому

    Nice job

  • @justins1146
    @justins1146 3 роки тому

    Thanks guy

  • @shahinjahanlu2199
    @shahinjahanlu2199 3 роки тому +2

    I like it

  • @sedahmo5601
    @sedahmo5601 3 місяці тому

    The fact 1979 as a prime is a climax

  • @Avighna
    @Avighna 10 місяців тому +2

    I do realise that this is the first problem, but have the problems gotten harder over the years or are the first questions still this easy?

    • @smallw2003
      @smallw2003 Місяць тому

      The first questions don't get harder over the years, although 1979 was one of the easiest just by chance

  • @coopernik
    @coopernik 3 роки тому +1

    Love it

  • @Barbaratty
    @Barbaratty 4 місяці тому

    I don’t get how 1979 necessarily divides p if it’s not divisible by the denominator of the big sum. How did you prove that q\(the sum) is an integer ?

  • @explorerc607
    @explorerc607 3 роки тому +5

    Suggestions: you should be more detailed for the answer since you skipped many crucial steps.

    • @ankitchaubey1583
      @ankitchaubey1583 3 роки тому +1

      I think the people who watch these kind of videos don't need those steps

    • @Deathranger999
      @Deathranger999 3 роки тому +2

      What crucial steps did he skip? On the whole this solution seemed to cover just about anything. I wasn't left with any questions.

  • @txikitofandango
    @txikitofandango 3 роки тому +2

    At 6:11, how do you know that 1979 does not divide b?

    • @aliceandbobplayagame3891
      @aliceandbobplayagame3891 3 роки тому +4

      Take a look 4:33 try to undersand it by yourself😉

    • @itzmrinyy7484
      @itzmrinyy7484 Місяць тому +1

      It's because 1979 is a prime number, and it's impossible for the summation to produce values for a or b that would equal 1979

  • @SPVLaboratories
    @SPVLaboratories 3 місяці тому

    Goddamn that’s slick

  • @Avve22
    @Avve22 3 роки тому +3

    The particular problem arrangement is true for any prime number in place of 1319....

  • @iainfulton3781
    @iainfulton3781 2 роки тому

    Turn on postifications

  • @hououinkyouma4388
    @hououinkyouma4388 10 місяців тому

    Elegant

  • @tonyhaddad1394
    @tonyhaddad1394 3 роки тому +4

    Amazing problem but i have a question how we could now a large prime number like 1979 😥

    • @landsgevaer
      @landsgevaer 3 роки тому +9

      You "only" need to check it isn't divisible by any prime up to sqrt(1979), i.e. up to 43; fourteen divisibility checks is boring, but doable.

    • @tonyhaddad1394
      @tonyhaddad1394 3 роки тому +1

      Yes thank u but i wonder if there are any easier way !!!!!

    • @landsgevaer
      @landsgevaer 3 роки тому +2

      @@tonyhaddad1394 Easier than just 14 divisions?? Don't think so.

    • @tonyhaddad1394
      @tonyhaddad1394 3 роки тому +1

      @@landsgevaer your e right but when i sayed easier i mean in a bigger number situation

    • @landsgevaer
      @landsgevaer 3 роки тому

      There are polynomial time primality tests. I think that is the best we can do asymptotically.
      en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/AKS_primality_test
      But I don't think anyone would ever do this by hand in a math olympiad. ;-)

  • @miltonlozano1167
    @miltonlozano1167 3 роки тому

    What board do you use?

  • @prithujsarkar2010
    @prithujsarkar2010 3 роки тому +3

    this was easy :D

  • @gyanprakashraj4062
    @gyanprakashraj4062 Місяць тому

    GOOD PROBLEM...

  • @Qoow8e1deDgikQ9m3ZG
    @Qoow8e1deDgikQ9m3ZG 3 місяці тому +1

    how do you know 1979 is prime number if you don't have calculator?

    • @pranjalsrivastava4260
      @pranjalsrivastava4260 3 місяці тому +2

      Any 4 digit number is not hard to check if its prime if you already know that primes till 100
      Here, since square root of 1979 is somewhere between 44 and 45 (since 44^2 = 1936 and 45^2 = 2025)
      We can check if any of the primes less than our equal to 44 divides 1979
      In this cases the primes are given by 2,3,5,7,11,13,17,19,23,29,31,37,43 (13 in total)
      Since 2,3,5 don't divide 1979 for obvious reasons, we just have 10 primes to check which won't take more than 5 minutes to do

  • @djkdvlv5162
    @djkdvlv5162 3 роки тому +9

    Big fan bro
    Very pro bhai
    Make me look very chutiya
    Hard work bro
    Very liking your nice work 👍

  • @User-gt1lu
    @User-gt1lu 3 роки тому +3

    Cool Solution but as a imo student from where should u know that 1979 is prime?

    • @lucagirelli5223
      @lucagirelli5223 3 роки тому +1

      Was thinking the same thing, how would you figure it out?

    • @koenmazereeuw4672
      @koenmazereeuw4672 3 роки тому +6

      You could check if any primes devide 1979 below sqrt(1979). It's not that fast but it will get the job done

    • @User-gt1lu
      @User-gt1lu 3 роки тому

      @@koenmazereeuw4672 yes that should work i mean you got more than an hour for one problem

    • @TM-ht8jv
      @TM-ht8jv 3 роки тому +18

      At least as far as I can tell, in most mathematical olympiads (at least nowadays) the participants should know the prime factorization of the year, e.g. 2021=43•47. So if the year is a prime number, they should know that, too. I even think that in many contests you can then simply state that as given. At least here in Germany it is like that.

    • @koenmazereeuw4672
      @koenmazereeuw4672 3 роки тому +1

      @@TM-ht8jv Yeah that's true. Thanks for the info btw I have to do the first round tomorrow :)

  • @mihirramaswamy1313
    @mihirramaswamy1313 6 місяців тому

    Nice proof

  • @Prypak
    @Prypak 4 місяці тому

    Why are your 9s mirrored ?

  • @sentinel6839
    @sentinel6839 3 роки тому +8

    How did tou go from 1978 is not divisible by b to p being divisible by 1978? Is there some sort of a trick? Otherwise great vid

    • @albertoferis8250
      @albertoferis8250 3 роки тому +5

      So basically you ended up with p/q = 1979a/b. Since you know that 1979 is not divisible by b, and a and b are coprimes (hence a is not divisible by b) 1979a/b is in its most simplified form AND is equal to p/q so you get that p=1979a ---> p/1979 =a :D

    • @RogerSmith-ee4zi
      @RogerSmith-ee4zi 3 роки тому +1

      @@albertoferis8250
      What happened to the b and q. Could you please explain though?

    • @bouzidhamza3494
      @bouzidhamza3494 3 роки тому +3

      @@RogerSmith-ee4zi the response is in the first reply but I will try to reexplain (make it clearer) : the fact that b does not divide 1979 and that also a and b are coprimes that makes 1979a and b coprimes therefore 1979a/b is in its most reductible form but so does p/q and there is only one unreductible form so p/q=1979a/b => p=1979a and b=q and therefore the result p/1979

    • @onurbey5934
      @onurbey5934 3 роки тому +1

      P/q doesnt have to be unreductible mate if we can divide p by 1979 we can divide 2p or 3p am i correct pls reply

    • @bouzidhamza3494
      @bouzidhamza3494 3 роки тому +1

      @@onurbey5934 yes what you did say is correct but that was not what we were trying to prove in fact p/q = 1979a/b will give you that p = 1979. aq/b but that last part q/b might not be a natural number (if that what you were saying)

  • @Stonechimp24820
    @Stonechimp24820 Місяць тому

    Why multiply all of the negative even numbers by 2?

  • @sacredceltic
    @sacredceltic 10 місяців тому

    Nice but how did you get to that path?

  • @orkaking3451
    @orkaking3451 10 місяців тому

    Good morning

  • @lianyiler1571
    @lianyiler1571 Рік тому

    can somebody explain why only some a,b in natural number but not all. Another question is why we should mention a.b=1

  • @valenleivalopez3777
    @valenleivalopez3777 7 місяців тому

    4:45 why do you write 1979/k.(1979-k) instead of 1/k.(1979-k) ?
    I am missing something in that step

  • @nayeemhassan1329
    @nayeemhassan1329 3 роки тому +4

    When I saw the problem I thought," How can I solve this ?" But when you solved it, I saw that it was quite easy. So my question is when I am given a math problem how should I proceed or approach it ?

    • @kirapiwpiw4804
      @kirapiwpiw4804 3 роки тому +4

      lot of practice thus easily noticing any form

    • @beanhwak
      @beanhwak 3 роки тому

      ask why 1319 then look connection

  • @irfanhossainbhuiyanstudent3757
    @irfanhossainbhuiyanstudent3757 3 роки тому +10

    I am confused about why 1979 not divides b.

  • @simonguoxm
    @simonguoxm 11 місяців тому

    The key is that 1979 is a prime number. this is very hard to know.

  • @PictooMath
    @PictooMath 10 місяців тому +2

    Nothing in the problem precises that p isn't divisible by q. Therefor you just need to multiplie p/q by 1979/1979 and set your p to be equal to 1979p. In that way, p is now divisible by 1979.

    • @jimallysonnevado3973
      @jimallysonnevado3973 10 місяців тому +2

      the problem says "Let p,q be natural numbers" which means that for any natural numbers p,q so that the fraction p/q is equal to the sum then p should be divisible by 1979. What we are trying to argue is that for any pair of p,q so that p/q is the sum, then p should always be divisible by 1979. So actually the problem is equivalent to asking whether p/q if written in simplest form, is p still divisible by 1979? Because if that's the case then any other fraction p/q that is equal to the sum will always have p divisible by 1979. While it is true that you can always multiply by 1979 and get another fraction where it trivially holds, the question is asking you to prove that it is always the case for any p,q pair not just those trivial cases.
      To illustrate, 1/2 for instance can be written as 1979/3958 as well as 3/6 or 2/4. But in the case of 3/6, 3 is not divisible by 1979. Which is a counterexample. The problem equates into proving that there is not a single counterexample in the case when p/q is supposed to equal that sum.

    • @PictooMath
      @PictooMath 10 місяців тому

      @@jimallysonnevado3973 Yes I see what you mean. There are technically infinitely many different solutions for the fraction because kp/kq = p/q and when p and q are prime between them, we have to proove that p = 0 mod 1979. But even when I knew that, I didn't managed to solve the problem :,).

  • @x13y
    @x13y 7 місяців тому

    Neat

  • @Smallpriest
    @Smallpriest 3 місяці тому +1

    Dude your handwriting is so bad, but solution is good

  • @rooster5572
    @rooster5572 5 місяців тому

    can anyone explain how he got the numerator to be 1979 in the summation?

  • @floydbethel2941
    @floydbethel2941 3 роки тому +1

    I came here not even knowing times table

  • @fanisnitsios4636
    @fanisnitsios4636 3 роки тому

    Maybe we could write the first terms as the sum of 1+3+... over 1979!! ??

  • @晓阳-d3p
    @晓阳-d3p 3 роки тому

    why 4:12 write 989 on the top? I did not learn about it , hope you can teach me , thanks

    • @christopherebsch3766
      @christopherebsch3766 3 роки тому

      On the line above the summation he grouped terms so that the first term in each group goes from 1/660 to 1/989 thus the summation on the next line is from 660 to 989

  • @Teraverse420
    @Teraverse420 2 місяці тому

    Bruh, this is a IOQM level problem!

  • @abirliouk8155
    @abirliouk8155 3 роки тому +1

    I didn't get it how you prove that p must be divisible by 1979 in the end ?

    • @martinkopcany6341
      @martinkopcany6341 3 роки тому +1

      The sum of fractions in the end would be (some great number)/(680*681*682....989*(1979-680)*(1979-681)*...*(1979-989) (because of how addition of fractions work) and 1979 is not divisible by this because it is prime (sorry for my english)

    • @abirliouk8155
      @abirliouk8155 3 роки тому

      @@martinkopcany6341 but why if 1979 is not divisble by b then p must be divisible by 1979

    • @martinkopcany6341
      @martinkopcany6341 3 роки тому +2

      @@abirliouk8155 p/q=(1979*a)/b so p=((1979*a)/b)*q so q is divisible by 1978

    • @abirliouk8155
      @abirliouk8155 3 роки тому

      @@martinkopcany6341
      but p/1979 =(a/b) *q and a/b is not an integer

    • @martinkopcany6341
      @martinkopcany6341 3 роки тому +2

      @@abirliouk8155 a/b is not an integer but (1979a/b)*q is an integer because p is an integer. And if (1979*a*q)/b is an integer and b is not divisible by 1979 then (1979*a*q)/b is divisible by 1979.

  • @mrbutish
    @mrbutish 10 місяців тому

    What in the hell was that leap in logic for a question to be done with pen and paper 😂🤣

  • @davidconway5399
    @davidconway5399 3 роки тому

    0+1+2+3+5+5+...-1/12=enter, enter, it's counting to negative infinity