Star Problem # 3, 4, 5 from Functions & Logarithm | Problem Series for JEE Aspirants

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  • Опубліковано 14 тра 2024
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КОМЕНТАРІ • 38

  • @amanbhaskar9960
    @amanbhaskar9960 Місяць тому +8

    Sir you are great 😢
    For providing quality education with no cost 🙏🙏🙏🙏

  • @arjunphaneesh6051
    @arjunphaneesh6051 Місяць тому +2

    Thank you sir i loved the second problem of functions

  • @Dheeraj.dheera
    @Dheeraj.dheera Місяць тому

    Thanks so much sir for giving the solution of problem 3

  • @amanbhaskar9960
    @amanbhaskar9960 Місяць тому +4

    Thanks sir 🙏🙏

  • @neerajgupta2386
    @neerajgupta2386 Місяць тому +2

    I solved the #4 problem using a different approach.
    So, what I did was that I substituted x=sin^2(t) and x belongs to [0,1] therefore t belongs to [0, pi/2], (so that the substitution is bijective). Substituting x=sin^2(t) in f(x)=4x(1-x) we get f(x) =sin^2(2t), f(f(x)) =sin^2(4t), f(f(f(x))) =sin^2(8t). Now we are required to solve f(f(f(x))) =x/3. It therefore becomes equivalent to solving sin^2(8t) =(sin^2(t))/3. And lastly draw both the graph for t belongs to [0, pi/2] they will cut at 8 points, we get 8 values of t➡we get 8 values of x (This is true because for a particular value of t there is only one value of x as I mentioned above)

    • @gametimewitharyan6665
      @gametimewitharyan6665 Місяць тому

      I haven't learnt trigonometry till now but the rigorousness of your solution is very beautiful to me
      Good work 🎉
      By any chance are you are Maths stackexchange user or Olympiad participant?

    • @dexroner
      @dexroner 24 дні тому

      Loved the visualization of taking sin²t.. Nice approach

  • @jagithgunti
    @jagithgunti 28 днів тому

    Learning a lot from questions sir thank u ,increase the level sir for learning more from individual question

  • @SarveshSingh-kw8xb
    @SarveshSingh-kw8xb Місяць тому +4

    Aur sir math me feel bhi do please

  • @user-qp9gj2hf2d
    @user-qp9gj2hf2d Місяць тому +1

    Same question tarun sir ne brain teaser me Diya tha

  • @UDAYPRATAPSINGH-hg7ts
    @UDAYPRATAPSINGH-hg7ts 24 дні тому

    real legend

  • @saipratiksamal
    @saipratiksamal 23 дні тому +2

    Sir please give the solution of this question
    In the Fibonacci series prove that
    [a(n+1)]²-a(n)×a(n+1)= (-1)^n
    Question from the book challenge and thrills of pre college mathematics, chapter 2, arithmetic of integers, topic principle of mathematical induction

  • @MantuKumar-hd8ze
    @MantuKumar-hd8ze 24 дні тому

    Sir how to draw graphs of multiple composite functions...... Ex:-sin(Q(x)).

  • @LGFZ136
    @LGFZ136 22 дні тому

    New video kab aayega?

  • @santoshanand8661
    @santoshanand8661 24 дні тому

    Sir naya question kab dolege qsn 8 ke baad apne qsns nhi bheje and qsn 5 ke baaad apne soln nhi bheja

  • @ayushdevdhar2178
    @ayushdevdhar2178 28 днів тому +1

    Problems are (Nice)²⁰⁰⁰

  • @SarveshSingh-kw8xb
    @SarveshSingh-kw8xb Місяць тому +5

    Aap easy sawal la rahe ho

  • @ssgamer5693
    @ssgamer5693 Місяць тому +1

    Q6 ans 30?

  • @SarveshSingh-kw8xb
    @SarveshSingh-kw8xb Місяць тому +1

    Sir aur khatin lao sawal

  • @vivekkushwaha1457
    @vivekkushwaha1457 24 дні тому

    Sir ? We know that a^x = a a^y = a then powers x=y. If we suppose powers 1^1 =1 ; 1^0= 1. Then powers 1=0 not possible .
    It means either 1^1=1 or 1^0=1
    is wrong. Please explain me.
    1^infinity = 1 I am 100% sure but other says that it is not possible why?

    • @neerajgupta2386
      @neerajgupta2386 23 дні тому

      1)U cannot apply a^x=a^y➡ x=y for a equal to 1. For the condition to hold true, a belongs to (0, infinity) - {1}. 1^1=1 and 1^0=1 are 100% correct.
      2) 1 raised to any power of a real number equals 1, take a note that here the number 1 is exactly 1, there are no limits involved. SO, u can say that limit of 1 to the power infinity is 1. But if something tending to 1 is raised to a very large power then the answer is a limit which can be different in different situations. So to sum it up as long as you mean exactly 1 by the number 1 you are right.

  • @toofaaniHINDU
    @toofaaniHINDU Місяць тому

    I couldn't solve #4 star problem 😢

  • @op-zy2if
    @op-zy2if Місяць тому +8

    Sir pls increase level of question these question can be easily found in standard books such as arihant or cengage

    • @AJ-io5xd
      @AJ-io5xd 24 дні тому

      Yes

    • @AnshPathak2005
      @AnshPathak2005 17 днів тому

      ​@@jiveshdonode1271kuch galat nhi kaha . Tera level khrab h to kya kr sakte h . Star problem ka level high hona chahiye

  • @Atharva-jf7cq
    @Atharva-jf7cq Місяць тому

    Sir problem 6 ka answer hain 30

  • @MATHSBABA-tw7mw
    @MATHSBABA-tw7mw Місяць тому +2

    I do first question just by observation without using pen and paper while travelling in abus😊

  • @NewMonaJewellers
    @NewMonaJewellers Місяць тому

    Mujhe to solve karte hi nhi aata

  • @skkirar7699
    @skkirar7699 Місяць тому +5

    Modiii

  • @neerajgupta2386
    @neerajgupta2386 Місяць тому +3

    I solved the #4 problem using a different approach.
    So, what I did was that I substituted x=sin^2(t) and x belongs to [0,1] therefore t belongs to [0, pi/2], (so that the substitution is bijective). Substituting x=sin^2(t) in f(x)=4x(1-x) we get f(x) =sin^2(2t), f(f(x)) =sin^2(4t), f(f(f(x))) =sin^2(8t). Now we are required to solve f(f(f(x))) =x/3. It therefore becomes equivalent to solving sin^2(8t) =(sin^2(t))/3. And lastly draw both the graph for t belongs to [0, pi/2] they will cut at 8 points. (This is true because for a particular value of t there is only one value of x as I mentioned above)