Star Problem # 3, 4, 5 from Functions & Logarithm | Problem Series for JEE Aspirants
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Sir you are great 😢
For providing quality education with no cost 🙏🙏🙏🙏
❤️
Thank you sir i loved the second problem of functions
Thanks so much sir for giving the solution of problem 3
Thanks sir 🙏🙏
I solved the #4 problem using a different approach.
So, what I did was that I substituted x=sin^2(t) and x belongs to [0,1] therefore t belongs to [0, pi/2], (so that the substitution is bijective). Substituting x=sin^2(t) in f(x)=4x(1-x) we get f(x) =sin^2(2t), f(f(x)) =sin^2(4t), f(f(f(x))) =sin^2(8t). Now we are required to solve f(f(f(x))) =x/3. It therefore becomes equivalent to solving sin^2(8t) =(sin^2(t))/3. And lastly draw both the graph for t belongs to [0, pi/2] they will cut at 8 points, we get 8 values of t➡we get 8 values of x (This is true because for a particular value of t there is only one value of x as I mentioned above)
I haven't learnt trigonometry till now but the rigorousness of your solution is very beautiful to me
Good work 🎉
By any chance are you are Maths stackexchange user or Olympiad participant?
Loved the visualization of taking sin²t.. Nice approach
Learning a lot from questions sir thank u ,increase the level sir for learning more from individual question
Aur sir math me feel bhi do please
Same question tarun sir ne brain teaser me Diya tha
real legend
Sir please give the solution of this question
In the Fibonacci series prove that
[a(n+1)]²-a(n)×a(n+1)= (-1)^n
Question from the book challenge and thrills of pre college mathematics, chapter 2, arithmetic of integers, topic principle of mathematical induction
Put n something as a convergence value
@@mathmaticianboyjain can u please elaborate.
Sir how to draw graphs of multiple composite functions...... Ex:-sin(Q(x)).
New video kab aayega?
Sir naya question kab dolege qsn 8 ke baad apne qsns nhi bheje and qsn 5 ke baaad apne soln nhi bheja
Problems are (Nice)²⁰⁰⁰
Aap easy sawal la rahe ho
Q6 ans 30?
Sir aur khatin lao sawal
Sir ? We know that a^x = a a^y = a then powers x=y. If we suppose powers 1^1 =1 ; 1^0= 1. Then powers 1=0 not possible .
It means either 1^1=1 or 1^0=1
is wrong. Please explain me.
1^infinity = 1 I am 100% sure but other says that it is not possible why?
1)U cannot apply a^x=a^y➡ x=y for a equal to 1. For the condition to hold true, a belongs to (0, infinity) - {1}. 1^1=1 and 1^0=1 are 100% correct.
2) 1 raised to any power of a real number equals 1, take a note that here the number 1 is exactly 1, there are no limits involved. SO, u can say that limit of 1 to the power infinity is 1. But if something tending to 1 is raised to a very large power then the answer is a limit which can be different in different situations. So to sum it up as long as you mean exactly 1 by the number 1 you are right.
I couldn't solve #4 star problem 😢
Sir pls increase level of question these question can be easily found in standard books such as arihant or cengage
Yes
@@jiveshdonode1271kuch galat nhi kaha . Tera level khrab h to kya kr sakte h . Star problem ka level high hona chahiye
Sir problem 6 ka answer hain 30
Bhai kaise solution bhejo
Please
I do first question just by observation without using pen and paper while travelling in abus😊
Mujhe to solve karte hi nhi aata
Modiii
Kiee guranteeeee
I solved the #4 problem using a different approach.
So, what I did was that I substituted x=sin^2(t) and x belongs to [0,1] therefore t belongs to [0, pi/2], (so that the substitution is bijective). Substituting x=sin^2(t) in f(x)=4x(1-x) we get f(x) =sin^2(2t), f(f(x)) =sin^2(4t), f(f(f(x))) =sin^2(8t). Now we are required to solve f(f(f(x))) =x/3. It therefore becomes equivalent to solving sin^2(8t) =(sin^2(t))/3. And lastly draw both the graph for t belongs to [0, pi/2] they will cut at 8 points. (This is true because for a particular value of t there is only one value of x as I mentioned above)
Excellent 👏👏
wow nice solution 👍