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Nice teaching sirji. God bless you
Thank u sir 🙏 ye videos se hard se hard topic ko v jaldi se samjh aa jati hai ...
Thank you
Nice teaching method
Thanks sir
My favorite Pq
thank youu sir
Thank you sir
Most welcome
Sir we can take any arbitrary epsilon na ,not necessarily 1 ?
For any epsilon, definition works. So it works for 1 also. And we did the same.
@@ranjankhatu if we don't take 1 , can we do by directly taking epsilon
@@keshavlalit1555 to prove the sequence bounded, we need to prove modulus of all elements are less than on fixed number. That's why we took epsilon.
let (an, bn, cn) be a sequence in( R^3, d2) and (p, q, r) €R^3 then( an, bn, cn) convergent to (p, q, r) in( R^3, d2) iff (an )convergent to p and (bn) cong. q and( cn) convergent to r in (R, | |) how to prove this question
I hope my following video will help you to write its proofua-cam.com/video/wjRj8Oifjqg/v-deo.html
Nice teaching sirji. God bless you
Thank u sir 🙏 ye videos se hard se hard topic ko v jaldi se samjh aa jati hai ...
Thank you
Nice teaching method
Thank you
Thanks sir
My favorite Pq
Thank you
Thank you
thank youu sir
Thank you sir
Most welcome
Sir we can take any arbitrary epsilon na ,not necessarily 1 ?
For any epsilon, definition works. So it works for 1 also. And we did the same.
@@ranjankhatu if we don't take 1 , can we do by directly taking epsilon
@@keshavlalit1555 to prove the sequence bounded, we need to prove modulus of all elements are less than on fixed number. That's why we took epsilon.
let (an, bn, cn) be a sequence in( R^3, d2) and (p, q, r) €R^3 then( an, bn, cn) convergent to (p, q, r) in( R^3, d2) iff (an )convergent to p and (bn) cong. q and( cn) convergent to r in (R, | |) how to prove this question
I hope my following video will help you to write its proof
ua-cam.com/video/wjRj8Oifjqg/v-deo.html