Why would Jesus in John 19:-26-27, do something contrary to custom(even to this very day) which would be to leave his Mother to John instead of his “brothers” or family. Jesus used his last words to take care of something that would have already been assumed? You are smarter than that. She was ever Virgin. That idea of “brothers” was brought forth not even a couple of hundred years ago by people who think they can interpret Scripture better than the ones before them. Deciphering the vernacular of current time to the Greek Aramaic and Latin of the past leads to the skewing of the Word of God. The devil is in the details, taking away Mary’s perpetual Virginity is a small way the devil uses God’s Word against him to demean Jesus’s Mother. There is total enmity between The Woman and satan (Genesis 3:15). If Eve was born without sin, and so was Adam. And she was lured by an angel of light which caused the downfall of man. And If Jesus is the New Adam, what does that make Mary? What does that make Gabriel? They corrected man’s fall. Being “highly favored” which the word in Greek actually used was kecharitomene, was used by Gabriel as a title as well as a present/past concurrent state of Grace. One change of the word in a faulty English translation such as “highly favored one” has lead many to a path of “well she was just a good girl”. Even the early protestant reformers believed in Mary’s perpetual Virginity. But it undermines God’s plan and places Mary down. It may not mean much to you, but if you get that wrong, you’ll get a lot of other things wrong. I know your response will be “she needed a Savior, she said it herself.” And Yes, indeed she did need a Savior. But I ask you this. If there’s a deep pit and you fall into it and I pull you up. Did I save you? Now what if that same pit is there, but before you can fall into that pit I grab you and stop you from falling. Did I save you?
Ok, so assuming Mary was "highly favored" in the sense you are suggesting, why does that necessitate continual virginity? How does a sexual relationship within marriage mar Mary's reputation in any way?
@@2BeLikeChrist Number one, no one in the early Church believed that or taught that. You do know that the Disciples, who were taught by the Apostles themselves, their writings exist? I have to ask this question because I have found out that many if not most Protestants do not know this. They’re usually referred to as “Church Fathers”. We also have the letters and decrees from Roman officials from the first century, on. Those letters and writings from those within the Early Church and Romans(government) were not in the disposal of protestant reformationists during the 16th century. Actually to this day, most American protestant seminarians do not know or care to study the early Church. There’s a point of no return, which is Truth, that people seek but deny due to their hardened hearts. Mary was a “Ever-Virgin”. Period. The people who wrote and compiled the minus 7 books of your Bible said so. To deny them, is literally to deny or question your beloved king james. Inconvenient truth of the Dead Sea scrolls was that it had what you deem as the “apocrypha”. I encourage you to read into the Church Fathers especially the first and second century fathers. As they will describe what is and what was the actual Church of Christ. You don’t have to take my word, or a guy in Rome, or a guy relying on a paycheck to feed his family. You have intellect and reasoning, which God gave you. Use it to discern. Discern Truth.
@@2BeLikeChrist 2 Thessalonians 2:15-17 But if it wasn’t written down by people who conspired with a pagan ruler, and compiled 3 centuries later, it never happened? The conundrum of conundrums.
Thanks for great explanation
Watching from New Orleans, Good start to the day ✋🏽
Hello! Hope things are well in New Orleans :)
this was a good one
Thank, Cory
Why would Jesus in John 19:-26-27, do something contrary to custom(even to this very day) which would be to leave his Mother to John instead of his “brothers” or family. Jesus used his last words to take care of something that would have already been assumed? You are smarter than that. She was ever Virgin. That idea of “brothers” was brought forth not even a couple of hundred years ago by people who think they can interpret Scripture better than the ones before them. Deciphering the vernacular of current time to the Greek Aramaic and Latin of the past leads to the skewing of the Word of God. The devil is in the details, taking away Mary’s perpetual Virginity is a small way the devil uses God’s Word against him to demean Jesus’s Mother. There is total enmity between The Woman and satan (Genesis 3:15). If Eve was born without sin, and so was Adam. And she was lured by an angel of light which caused the downfall of man.
And If Jesus is the New Adam, what does that make Mary? What does that make Gabriel? They corrected man’s fall. Being “highly favored” which the word in Greek actually used was kecharitomene, was used by Gabriel as a title as well as a present/past concurrent state of Grace. One change of the word in a faulty English translation such as “highly favored one” has lead many to a path of “well she was just a good girl”. Even the early protestant reformers believed in Mary’s perpetual Virginity. But it undermines God’s plan and places Mary down. It may not mean much to you, but if you get that wrong, you’ll get a lot of other things wrong.
I know your response will be “she needed a Savior, she said it herself.” And Yes, indeed she did need a Savior. But I ask you this. If there’s a deep pit and you fall into it and I pull you up. Did I save you? Now what if that same pit is there, but before you can fall into that pit I grab you and stop you from falling. Did I save you?
Ok, so assuming Mary was "highly favored" in the sense you are suggesting, why does that necessitate continual virginity? How does a sexual relationship within marriage mar Mary's reputation in any way?
@@2BeLikeChrist Number one, no one in the early Church believed that or taught that. You do know that the Disciples, who were taught by the Apostles themselves, their writings exist? I have to ask this question because I have found out that many if not most Protestants do not know this. They’re usually referred to as “Church Fathers”. We also have the letters and decrees from Roman officials from the first century, on. Those letters and writings from those within the Early Church and Romans(government) were not in the disposal of protestant reformationists during the 16th century. Actually to this day, most American protestant seminarians do not know or care to study the early Church. There’s a point of no return, which is Truth, that people seek but deny due to their hardened hearts.
Mary was a “Ever-Virgin”. Period. The people who wrote and compiled the minus 7 books of your Bible said so. To deny them, is literally to deny or question your beloved king james. Inconvenient truth of the Dead Sea scrolls was that it had what you deem as the “apocrypha”.
I encourage you to read into the Church Fathers especially the first and second century fathers. As they will describe what is and what was the actual Church of Christ. You don’t have to take my word, or a guy in Rome, or a guy relying on a paycheck to feed his family. You have intellect and reasoning, which God gave you. Use it to discern. Discern Truth.
@@2BeLikeChrist 2 Thessalonians 2:15-17 But if it wasn’t written down by people who conspired with a pagan ruler, and compiled 3 centuries later, it never happened? The conundrum of conundrums.